Devry ACCT434 Week 5 Quiz

Devry ACCT434 Week 5 Quiz

Question 1.1.(TCO 7) When companies do not want to use market prices or find it too costly, they typically use __________ prices, even though suboptimal decisions may occur.(Points : 3)

average-cost
full-cost
long-run cost
short-run average cost

Question 2.2.(TCO 7) The price of movie tickets for opening day and the few days following compared to the price six months later is an example of(Points : 3)

price gouging.
peak-load pricing.
dumping.
demand elasticity.

Question 3.3.(TCO 7) The amount of markup percentage is usually higher if (Points : 3)

demand is elastic.
competition is intense.
there is idle capacity.
demand is strong.

Question 4.4.(TCO 7) An understanding of life-cycle costs can lead to(Points :3)

additional costs during the manufacturing cycle
less need for evaluation of the competition
cost-effective product designs that are easier to service
mutually beneficial relationships between buyers and sellers.

Question 5.5.(TCO 7) Each month, Haddon Company has $275,000 total manufacturing costs (20% fixed) and $125,000 distribution and marketing costs (36% fixed). Haddon’s monthly sales are $500,000.
The markup percentage on full cost to arrive at the target (existing) selling price is (Points : 3)

25%
75%
80%
20%

Question 6.6.(TCO 8) A product may be passed from one subunit to another subunit in the same organization. The product is known as(Points : 3)

an interdepartmental product.
an intermediate product.
a subunit product.
a transfer product.

Question 7.7.(TCO 8) Transfer prices should be judged by whether they promote(Points : 3)

goal congruence.
the balanced scorecard method
a high level of subunit autonomy in decision making
Both 1 and 3 are correct

Question 8.8.(TCO 8) A benefit of using a market-based transfer price is the(Points : 3)

profits of the transferring division are sacrificed for the overall good of the corporation
profits of the division receiving the products are sacrificed for the overall good of the corporation
economic viability and profitability of each division can be evaluated individually
None of the above

Question 9.9.(TCO 8) The range over which two divisions will negotiate a transfer price is(Points : 3)

between the supplying division’s variable cost and the market price of the product
between the supplying division’s variable cost and its full cost of the product
anywhere above the supplying division’s full cost of the product
between the supplying division’s full cost and 180% above its full cost

Question 10.10.(TCO 8) Division A sells soybean paste internally to Division B, which in turn, produces soybean burgers that sell for $5 per pound. Division A incurs costs of $0.75 per pound while Division B incurs additional costs of $2.50 per pound. Which of the following formulas correctly reflects the company’s operating income per pound?(Points : 3)

$5.00 – ($1.25 + $2.50) = $1.25
$5.00 – ($0.75 + $2.50) = $1.75
$5.00 – ($0.75 + $3.75) = $0.50
$5.00 – ($0.25 + $1.25 + $3.50) = 0

Here’s the SOLUTION

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FIN 534 Final Exam – Which of the following is NOT normally regarded as being a barrier to hostile takeovers

FIN 534 FINAL EXAM

Question 1
Which of the following is NOT normally regarded as being a barrier to hostile takeovers?

Targeted share repurchases.
Shareholder rights provisions.
Restricted voting rights.
Poison pills.
Abnormally high executive compensation.

Question 2
Which of the following is NOT normally regarded as being a good reason to establish an ESOP?

To enable the firm to borrow at a below-market interest rate.
To make it easier to grant stock options to employees.
To help prevent a hostile takeover.
To help retain valued employees.
To increase worker productivity.

Question 3
Rohter Galeano Inc. is considering how to set its dividend policy. It has a capital budget of $3,000,000. The company wants to maintain a target capital structure that is 15% debt and 85% equity. The company forecasts that its net income this year will be $3,500,000. If the company follows a residual dividend policy, what will be its total dividend payment?

$205,000
$500,000
$950,000
$2,550,000
$3,050,000

Question 4
If a firm adheres strictly to the residual dividend policy, the issuance of new common stock would suggest that

the dividend payout ratio is increasing.
no dividends were paid during the year.
the dividend payout ratio is decreasing.
the dollar amount of investments has decreased.
the dividend payout ratio has remained constant.

Question 5
Which of the following statements is correct?

Capital gains earned in a share repurchase are taxed less favorably than dividends; this explains why companies typically pay dividends and avoid share repurchases.
Very often, a company’s stock price will rise when it announces that it plans to commence a share repurchase program. Such an announcement could lead to a stock price decline, but this does not normally happen.
Stock repurchases increase the number of outstanding shares.
The clientele effect is the best explanation for why companies tend to vary their dividend payments from quarter to quarter.
If a company has a 2-for-1 stock split, its stock price should roughly double.

Question 6
Which of the following actions will best enable a company to raise additional equity capital?

Declare a stock split.
Begin an open-market purchase dividend reinvestment plan.
Initiate a stock repurchase program.
Begin a new-stock dividend reinvestment plan.
Refund long-term debt with lower cost short-term debt.

Question 7
Which of the following statements is correct?

One nice feature of dividend reinvestment plans (DRIPs) is that they reduce the taxes investors would have to pay if they received cash dividends.
Empirical research indicates that, in general, companies send a negative signal to the marketplace when they announce an increase in the dividend, and as a result share prices fall when dividend increases are announced. The reason is that investors interpret the increase as a signal that the firm has relatively few good investment opportunities.
If a company wants to raise new equity capital rather steadily over time, a new stock dividend reinvestment plan would make sense. However, if the firm does not want or need new equity, then an open market purchase dividend reinvestment plan would probably make more sense.
Dividend reinvestment plans have not caught on in most industries, and today about 99% of all companies with DRIPs are utilities.
Under the tax laws as they existed in 2008, a dollar received for repurchased stock must be taxed at the same rate as a dollar received as dividends.

Question 8
Poff Industries’ stock currently sells for $120 a share. You own 100 shares of the stock. The company is contemplating a 2-for-1 stock split. Which of the following best describes what your position will be after such a split takes place?

You will have 200 shares of stock, and the stock will trade at or near $60 a share.
You will have 100 shares of stock, and the stock will trade at or near $60 a share.
You will have 50 shares of stock, and the stock will trade at or near $120 a share.
You will have 50 shares of stock, and the stock will trade at or near $60 a share.
You will have 200 shares of stock, and the stock will trade at or near $120 a share.

Question 9
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

After a 3-for-1 stock split, a company’s price per share should fall, but the number of shares outstanding will rise.
Investors can interpret a stock repurchase program as a signal that the firm’s managers believe the stock is undervalued.
Companies can repurchase shares to distribute large inflows of cash, say from the sale of a division, to stockholders without paying cash dividends.
Stockholders pay no income tax on dividends if the dividends are used to purchase stock through a dividend reinvestment plan.
Stock repurchases can be used by a firm as part of a plan to change its capital structure.

Question 10
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

The capital structure that maximizes the stock price is also the capital structure that maximizes earnings per share.
The capital structure that maximizes the stock price is also the capital structure that maximizes the firm’s times interest earned (TIE) ratio.
Increasing a company’s debt ratio will typically reduce the marginal costs of both debt and equity financing; however, this still may raise the company’s WACC.
If Congress were to pass legislation that increases the personal tax rate but decreases the corporate tax rate, this would encourage companies to increase their debt ratios.
The capital structure that maximizes the stock price is also the capital structure that minimizes the weighted average cost of capital (WACC).

Question 11
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

The capital structure that minimizes a firm’s weighted average cost of capital is also the capital structure that maximizes its stock price.
The capital structure that minimizes the firm’s weighted average cost of capital is also the capital structure that maximizes its earnings per share.
If a firm finds that the cost of debt is less than the cost of equity, increasing its debt ratio must reduce its WACC.
Other things held constant, if corporate tax rates declined, then the Modigliani-Miller tax-adjusted tradeoff theory would suggest that firms should increase their use of debt.
A firm can use retained earnings without paying a flotation cost. Therefore, while the cost of retained earnings is not zero, its cost is generally lower than the after-tax cost of debt.

Question 12
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

The optimal capital structure simultaneously maximizes EPS and minimizes the WACC.
The optimal capital structure minimizes the cost of equity, which is a necessary condition for maximizing the stock price.
The optimal capital structure simultaneously minimizes the cost of debt, the cost of equity, and the WACC.
The optimal capital structure simultaneously maximizes stock price and minimizes the WACC.
As a rule, the optimal capital structure is found by determining the debt-equity mix that maximizes expected EPS

Question 13
Which of the following events is likely to encourage a company to raise its target debt ratio, other things held constant?

An increase in the personal tax rate.
An increase in the company’s operating leverage.
The Federal Reserve tightens interest rates in an effort to fight inflation.
The company’s stock price hits a new high.
An increase in the corporate tax rate.

Question 14
Barette Consulting currently has no debt in its capital structure, has $500 million of total assets, and its basic earning power is 15%. The CFO is contemplating a recapitalization where it will issue debt at a cost of 10% and use the proceeds to buy back shares of the company’s common stock, paying book value. If the company proceeds with the recapitalization, its operating income, total assets, and tax rate will remain unchanged. Which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of the recapitalization?

The ROA would remain unchanged.
The basic earning power ratio would decline.
The basic earning power ratio would increase.
The ROE would increase.
The ROA would increase.

Question 15
Two operationally similar companies, HD and LD, have the same total assets, operating income (EBIT), tax rate, and business risk. Company HD, however, has a much higher debt ratio than LD. Also HD’s basic earning power (BEP) exceeds its cost of debt (rd). Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

HD should have a higher times interest earned (TIE) ratio than LD.
HD should have a higher return on equity (ROE) than LD, but its risk, as measured by the standard deviation of ROE, should also be higher than LD’s.
Given that BEP > rd, HD’s stock price must exceed that of LD.
Given that BEP > rd, LD’s stock price must exceed that of HD.
HD should have a higher return on assets (ROA) than LD.

Question 16
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

If a firm lowered its fixed costs while increasing its variable costs, holding total costs at the present level of sales constant, this would decrease its operating leverage.
The debt ratio that maximizes EPS generally exceeds the debt ratio that maximizes share price.
If a company were to issue debt and use the money to repurchase common stock, this action would have no impact on its basic earning power ratio. (Assume that the repurchase has no impact on the company’s operating income.)
If changes in the bankruptcy code made bankruptcy less costly to corporations, this would likely reduce the average corporation’s debt ratio.
Increasing financial leverage is one way to increase a firm’s basic earning power (BEP).

Question 17
Which of the following statements is most consistent with efficient inventory management? The firm has a

low incidence of production schedule disruptions.
below average total assets turnover ratio.
relatively high current ratio.
relatively low DSO.
below average inventory turnover ratio.

Question 18
A lockbox plan is

used to identify inventory safety stocks.
used to slow down the collection of checks our firm writes.
used to speed up the collection of checks received.
used primarily by firms where currency is used frequently in transactions, such as fast food restaurants, and less frequently by firms that receive payments as checks.
used to protect cash, i.e., to keep it from being stolen.

Question 19
A lockbox plan is most beneficial to firms that

have widely dispersed manufacturing facilities.
have a large marketable securities portfolio and cash to protect.
receive payments in the form of currency, such as fast food restaurants, rather than in the form of checks.
have customers who operate in many different parts of the country.
have suppliers who operate in many different parts of the country.

Question 20
Other things held constant, which of the following would tend to reduce the cash conversion cycle?

Place larger orders for raw materials to take advantage of price breaks.
Take all discounts that are offered.
Continue to take all discounts that are offered and pay on the net date.
Offer longer payment terms to customers.
Carry a constant amount of receivables as sales decline.

Question 21
Firms generally choose to finance temporary current operating assets with short-term debt because

short-term interest rates have traditionally been more stable than long-term interest rates.
a firm that borrows heavily on a long-term basis is more apt to be unable to repay the debt than a firm that borrows short term.
the yield curve is normally downward sloping.
short-term debt has a higher cost than equity capital.
matching the maturities of assets and liabilities reduces risk under some circumstances, and also because short-term debt is often less expensive than long-term capital.

Question 22
Which of the following is NOT directly reflected in the cash budget of a firm that is in the zero tax bracket?

Depreciation.
Cumulative cash.
Repurchases of common stock.
Payment for plant construction.
Payments lags.

Question 23
Suppose that 1 British pound currently equals 1.62 U.S. dollars and 1 U.S. dollar equals 1.62 Swiss francs. What is the cross exchange rate between the pound and the franc?

1 British pound equals 3.2400 Swiss francs
1 British pound equals 2.6244 Swiss francs
1 British pound equals 1.8588 Swiss francs
1 British pound equals 1.0000 Swiss francs
1 British pound equals 0.3810 Swiss francs

Question 24
Suppose Yates Inc., a U.S. exporter, sold a consignment of antique American muscle-cars to a Japanese customer at a price of 143.5 million yen, when the exchange rate was 140 yen per dollar. In order to close the sale, Yates agreed to make the bill payable in yen, thus agreeing to take some exchange rate risk for the transaction. The terms were net 6 months. If the yen fell against the dollar such that one dollar would buy 154.4 yen when the invoice was paid, what dollar amount would Yates actually receive after it exchanged yen for U.S. dollars?

$1,075,958
$1,025,000
$1,000,000
$975,610
$929,404

Question 25
If it takes $0.71 U.S. dollars to purchase one Swiss franc, how many Swiss francs can one U.S. dollar buy?

0.50
0.71
1.00
1.41
2.81

Question 26
A box of chocolate candy costs 28.80 Swiss francs in Switzerland and $20 in the United States. Assuming that purchasing power parity (PPP) holds, what is the current exchange rate?

1 U.S. dollar equals 0.69 Swiss francs
1 U.S. dollar equals 0.85 Swiss francs
1 U.S. dollar equals 1.21 Swiss francs
1 U.S. dollar equals 1.29 Swiss francs
1 U.S. dollar equals 1.44 Swiss francs

Question 27
Suppose a carton of hockey pucks sell in Canada for 105 Canadian dollars, and 1 Canadian dollar equals 0.71 U.S. dollars. If purchasing power parity (PPP) holds, what is the price of hockey pucks in the United States?

$14.79
$63.00
$74.55
$85.88
$147.88

Question 28
If 1.64 Canadian dollars can purchase one U.S. dollar, how many U.S. dollars can you purchase for one Canadian dollar?

0.37
0.61
1.00
1.64
3.28

Question 29
Suppose one U.S. dollar can purchase 144 yen today in the foreign exchange market. If the yen depreciates by 8.0% tomorrow, how many yen could one U.S. dollar buy tomorrow?

155.5 yen
144.0 yen
133.5 yen
78.0 yen
72.0 yen

Question 30
Suppose a foreign investor who holds tax-exempt Eurobonds paying 9% is considering investing in an equivalent-risk domestic bond in a country with a 28% withholding tax on interest paid to foreigners. If 9% after-tax is the investor’s required return, what before-tax rate would the domestic bond need to pay to provide the required after-tax return?

9.00%
10.20%
11.28%
12.50%
13.57%

Here’s the SOLUTION

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Ashord BUS 308 Week 1 Quiz (A+ Solution)

Ashord BUS 308 Week 1 Quiz

1. Question : When using the Chebyshev’s theorem to obtain the bounds for 99.73 percent of the values in a population, the interval generally will be _______ the interval obtained for the same percentage if normal distribution is assumed (empirical rule).

narrower than
wider than
the same as

2. Question : An example of a qualitative variable is the mileage of a car.
True
False

3. Question : By taking a systematic sample, in which we select every 100th shopper arriving at a specific store, we are approximating a random sample of shoppers.

True
False

4. Question : All of the following are measures of central tendency except the

range
mode
mean
median

5. Question : Measurements from a population are called

statistics.
observations.
variables.
inferences.

6. Question : A normal population has 99.73 percent of the population measurements within ___ standard deviations of the mean.

one
two
three
four

7. Question : When a population is skewed to the left or right with a very long tail, what is the best measure to use for central tendency.

Population mean
Population mode
Population median
Population standard deviation

8. Question : All of the following are measures of central tendency except the

range
mode
mean
median

9. Question : Which percentile describes the first quartile Q1?

25th
50th
75th
100th

10. Question : Any characteristic of a population unit is called a

measurement.
sample.
observation.

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MKT 441 Week 5 Final Exam (A+ Guaranteed)

MKT 441 Week 5 Final Exam

1. A marketing research firm is discussing the possibility of a major project for a real estate company.  The research firm has already conducted extensive exploratory research for the project and has been compensated.  For the subsequent survey, the top managers in the real estate firm cannot agree on exactly what the specific research objectives should be.  What should the marketing research firm do?

a. decline the project
b. conduct more exploratory research
c. tell the top managers what the research objectives should be and do the project
d. agree to do the subsequent project for a lower cost
e. none of the above

2. In establishing the need for marketing research, which of the following would serve as a good decision rule for managers?

a. ensuring that competitors are using marketing research, therefore a company considering marketing research would not be at a competitive disadvantage
b. determining the value to be derived from marketing research
c. determining the cost of conducting marketing research
d. weighing the value derived from the marketing research with the cost of obtaining the marketing research information
e. ensuring that subordinates are in favor of conducting the marketing research

3. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. The Internet is rapidly replacing libraries and other printed materials once used in marketing research
b. The Internet facilitates the distribution of research proposals
c. The Internet facilitates collaboration between supplier and client
d. the publishing and distribution of research reports is facilitated by the Internet
e. none of the above

4. Which of the following represents an application of secondary data?

a. predicting broad changes in culture
b. selecting a street location for a new carwash
c. economic trends forecasting
d. corporate intelligence
e. All of the above are applications of secondary data.

5. Which type of research may begin with, say, exploratory research, and then go on to conduct a full-scale, representative survey?

qualitative research
quantitative research
pluralistic research
focus group research
representative research

6. The percentage of total variation in the dependent variable that is described by the independent variable is expressed by_________.

a. coefficient of determination
b. correlation coefficient
c. coefficient of covariation
d. regression coefficient
e. none of the above

7. The scaling that permits most sophisticated statistical analysis is

nominal scaling
ordinal scaling
interval scaling
ratio scaling

8. When a market research supplier subcontracts out data collection activities to another firm, they are using what kind of a company?

a. Data analysis
b. Field service
c. Quality control
d. Target marketing
e. None of the above

9. It would be unethical for a potential client to steal a marketing research supplier’s:

a. methodology
b. survey instrument
c. sample
d. proprietary data analysis techniques
e. all of the above

10. The Bayesian approach to decision making

assigns probabilities to each state of nature based on relative frequency probabilities
uses personal probabilities reflecting the decision maker’s confidence in the truth of a specific proposition
is based on the principle of insufficient reason
assumes complete ignorance about the true state of nature

11. The best way to improve the response rate of mail interviews is to

offer an incentive
pre-notify people of the survey
use colored questionnaires
use first class mail
none of the above

12. Which of the following is not true about the research process?

a. It is a systematic, planned approach.
b. It ensures that the stages of the research project will be independent of each other.
c. It guides the project from conception to the final analysis and presentation of results.
d. It creates a consistency between the research design and the research purpose.
e. All of these are true.

13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of secondary data?

a. observation data collected for the project at hand
b. might be relevant to the problem at hand
c. gathered previously for another purpose
d. (b) and (c)
e. all are characteristic of secondary data

14. Validity of online surveys depends on

Sample selection
Survey design
Response tendencies
Technology challenges.
All of the above

15. One of the nonprobability methods used for sampling is:

cluster sampling
systematic sampling
convenience sampling
stratified sampling
simple random sample

16. This type of chart is the simplest form of chart and is useful for presenting a measurement taken at several points over time.

a. line chart
b. bar chart
c. pie chart
d. (b) and (c) are equally useful
e. all are equally useful

17. In a beer consumption study, a researcher makes an assumption that males will consume more beer per week than females; this can be stated in a:

research objective
given level of significance
hypothesis
theory
rule

18. Target marketing most closely identifies with which of the following orientations?

a. production orientation
b. systems orientation
c. goal orientation
d. consumer orientation
e. all are part of the requirements for adopting the marketing concept

19. Which of the following is NOT a way marketing research is used by corporate marketing departments to support the marketing decision-making process?

a. To evaluate the ongoing success of operational marketing strategies.
b. To identify new target markets.
c. To measure the quality of customer service and level of satisfaction.
d. To assess changes in the internal environment.
e. All of the above are used to support the marketing decision-making process.

20. Large amounts of money, time, and effort are wasted because requests for marketing information were poorly formulated.  The preceding could have been avoided if the researcher had

found out exactly why the information was being sought
stated their objectives more clearly
recognize the opportunity
determine whether the information already exists
all of the above

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ECO 561 Week 4 Quiz (A+ Guaranteed)

ECO 561 Week 4 Quiz

1. Business cycles occur when output

A. falls below its potential
B. rises above its potential
C. is fixed at its potential
D. fluctuates around its growth trend

2. Which of these statements best describes a complete individual business cycle?

A. Movement from peak to trough to peak
B. Movement from recession to expansion
C. Movement from peak to recession to trough
D. Movement from trough to expansion then to peak

3. During the business cycle, the period between the point at which output reaches a high and the point at which it reaches a low is called

A. a peak
B. a trough
C. an expansion
D. a recession

4. Which of the following equals the market value of all final goods and services produced in an economy, stated in the prices of a specific base year?

A. Nominal GNP
B. Nominal GDP
C. Real GDP
D. Real GNP

5. Imagine a country has a population of 210 million. Within the country there are 95 million people who are employed workers, 50 million people incapable of working, and 60 million people capable of working, but not actively looking. Based on this information, what is the unemployment rate?

A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 7%
D. 9%

6. The unemployment produced by fluctuations in economic activity is called

A. frictional unemployment
B. cyclical unemployment
C. natural unemployment
D. structural unemployment

7. New college graduates are most likely to experience

A. frictional unemployment
B. cyclical unemployment
C. natural unemployment
D. structural unemployment

8. The natural rate of unemployment is defined as the

A. highest sustainable rate of unemployment achievable under existing conditions
B. unemployment rate that is consistent with the economy operating at its potential output
C. unemployment rate at which there is no cyclical unemployment
D. the rate of unemployment that should exist according to policy makers

9. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is based on

A. surveys of retail store sales
B. a broad index of all items in GDP
C. surveys of the prices of items in a market basket
D. Bureau of Labor Statistics estimates of price changes

10. Unanticipated inflation is a problem for society because it

A. rewards lenders at the expense of borrowers
B. increases real profits in the short term
C. rewards savers at the expense of spenders
D. benefits borrowers at the expense of lenders

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The Pearce Club, Inc., is considered investing in an exercise machine that costs $5,000

RR Tax Effects

The Pearce Club, Inc., is considered investing in an exercise machine that costs $5,000 andwould increase revenues by $1,500 a year for five years. The machine would be depreciated over its five-year useful life via the straight-line method and would have no salvage value.

Calculate the equipment’s internal rate of return. Assume that the tax rate is 30 percent. Do not enter the percent sign (%). Round your final answer to two decimal places.

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SCI 204 Week 5 Quiz (A+ Guaranteed)

Question 1.1.(TCO 8) Which of the following contains the least amount of water?(Points : 3)

Oceans
Polar ice caps and glaciers
Accessible freshwater
Total freshwater
Saltwater seas

Question 2.2.(TCO 8) Which of the following leads to increased inputs of phosphorus into waterways?(Points : 3)

The use of crop rotation in agriculture
Forest fires
The combustion of fossil fuels
The use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture
Condensation and precipitation

Question 3.3.(TCO 8) Pollution includes(Points : 3)

dumping detergents into streams, causing fish kills
spraying with DDT, lowering the eagle population
releasing gases from coal combustion, causing acid rain
allowing fertilizer runoff from cropland
All of the above

Question 4.4.(TCO 8) A major water related health problem in developing countries is that (Points : 3)

groundwater is usually contaminated with human waste
groundwater is usually contaminated with industrial wastes.
groundwater is not available
surface waters used for water supplies are often contaminated with human wastes
surface waters are contaminated with industrial wastes

Question 5.5.(TCO 8) The best way to reduce the pollution of agricultural fertilizer runoff from farm fields is(Points : 3)

to treat the water before it reaches streams or rivers
to reduce the amount fertilizer leaving the farm fields
to add chemicals into the rivers and streams that neutralize the fertilizers
to raise crops in the rivers and streams that use the fertilizers
None of the above

Question 6.6.(TCO 8) According to the Environmental Protection Agency, the greatest current water pollution challenge in the United States is illustrated by(Points : 3)

sewage-treatment effluent
agricultural runoff
fluids released from oil wells.
discharge of substances from factories
household waste

Question 7.7.(TCO 8) The dead zone in the Gulf of Mexico is primarily the result of(Points : 3)

nonpoint sources of pollutants
point sources of pollutants
a natural cycle related to cold ocean currents
industrial pollution by oil refineries in the New Orleans region
sewage dumping into the gulf waters.

Question 8.8.(TCO 8) As world populations increase,(Points : 3)

the greatest increases in water demands will occur in the developing world
water demands will nearly double in the developing world
irrigation demands for water will nearly double
agricultural demands will increase in developed countries
All of the above

Question 9.9.(TCO 8) The impact of global warming on the water cycle is expected to produce(Points : 3)

more precipitation
fewer droughts
fewer hurricanes
greater agricultural productivity in currently water-stressed regions
the water cycle will drop.

Question 10.10.(TCO 8) The world’s largest multi-purpose Hydro Electric Power Plant (HEPP) is on The ________.(Points : 3)

Yangtze River in China
Mississippi River in the USA
Nile River in Egypt
Rhine River in Germany
Amazon River in Brazil

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Strayer BUS 375 Midterm Exam (A+ Guaranteed)

Strayer BUS 375 Midterm Exam

Question 1
Which of the following is not one of the PMBOKâ Guide’s five process groups?

Feasibility studies
Planning
Execution
Closure

Question 2
In which life cycle phase do project sponsors become most actively involved in the project?

Initiation
Execution
Monitor and control
Closure

Question 3
When team members take direction from both the project and line managers, the type of project manager is usually

Lightweight team leader
Heavyweight team leader
Tiger team leader
Leopard team leader

Question 4
Which of the following is normally not one of the traditional components of the triple constraint?

Within time
Within cost
Within performance (Scope, technology or quality)
Accepted by the customer

Question 5
Which of the following is normally not part of a team member’s role?

Accepting responsibility for a deliverable
Sharing information with the sponsor
Sharing information with the team
Completing the work at the earliest possible time.

Question 6
Historically, which functional organization provided the greatest resistance to project management implementation?

Sales
Procurement
Information Systems/ Technology
Engineering

Question 7
Project management restructuring allowed companies to manage projects that _____.

Could not be handled by the traditional organization
Had undefined objectives
Did not require effective cost control
Require little functional integration

Question 8
During the 1970s and 1980s, formal project management practices were put in place because the constraints were _____ and _____ boundaries had to be crossed

Loose; several
Loose; few
Tight; several
Tight; few

Question 9
Which of the following is not necessarily an obstacle to effective project management?

Changes in technology
Changes in project sponsorship
Increased project complexity
Unstable economy

Question 10
If a company advertises on television that they consider themselves as a solution provider to satisfy your business needs, then their driving force was most likely:

Competitiveness
Customer expectations
Efficiency and effectiveness
Executive understanding

Question 11
With the project expeditor organizational structure, the expeditor is usually brought on board:

At the beginning of the project
At the end of the first life cycle phase
When the project is 50% complete
When a problem arises

Question 12
In which organizational form are the formal and informal organizations well established?

Traditional
Strong matrix
Balanced matrix
Weak matrix

Question 13
In which organizational form is there no customer focal point?

Traditional
Projectized
Strong matrix
Weak matrix

Question 14
Which organizational structure generally retains team members long after they are needed?

Projectized
Strong matrix
Balanced matrix
Weak Matrix

Question 15
Before becoming a project manager within a matrix organization, training should be provided in all of the following except:

Matrix operations
Wage and salary administration
Problem-solving
Role definitions

Question 16
According to the text, the “next generation” project manager must exhibit skills in all of the following except:

Integration skills
Risk management skills
Wage and salary administration skills
Knowledge of the business

Question 17
You have just been awarded a contract in which you told the customer that a certain employee would be assigned full time on the project. Once the project begins, you discover that the employee is splitting his time between two projects per the instructions of his functional manager. You should:

Do nothing
Determine the impact on the project and discuss it with the project sponsor
Determine the impact on the project and discuss it with the functional manager
Determine the impact on the project and discuss it with the customer

Question 18
Probably the greatest risk to a project manager on a long-term project is to receive the best employees and then:

Have them seek perfection rather than just meeting the requirements
Find that your costs are escalating
Being unable to motivate them.
Losing them to other projects at an inopportune time

Question 19
Project manager selection is usually made by the:

Senior levels of management
Customer’s selection process
Line management based upon cooperation on past projects
Voting by the team members

Question 20
Which of the following is not usually an option for a PM dealing with an incompetent worker?

On-the-spot appraisals
Re-assignment to less critical activities
Removal from the company
Removal from the project

Question 21
According to Douglas McGregor, team members that require supervision, direction and threat of punishment for non-compliance are called _____ employees.

Theory X
Theory Y
Theory Z
Non-compliant

Question 22
Laissez-faire leadership most likely represents:

Telling
Selling
Participating
Delegating

Question 23
The document that is prepared at the beginning of a project in order to clarify the roles and responsibilities of the team members is called a:

Responsibility clarification table
Responsibility identification table
Responsibility assignment matrix
Work package assignment sheet

Question 24
Project managers would prefer to communicate in which of the following manners if given a choice?

Formal and written
Formal and oral
Informal and oral
Informal and written

Question 25
If six people are in a room participating in a conversation, then there are _____ two-way channels of communications.

9
10
15
30

PART II

Question 1
The most difficult decision for a project manager is to say:

OK! I’ll do it.
It’s my job.
Let the sponsor do it.
No, it’s not my job.

Question 2
Waiting for people, incomplete work and numerous telephone calls are referred to as:

Time robbers
Time imbalances
Inappropriate actions
Cause and effect relations

Question 3
Two common time management forms, as described in the book are called:

To-do pad and project scheduler
Daily calendar log and project scheduler
Responsibility assignment matrix and daily calendar log
To-do pad and daily calendar log

Question 4
Project managers that refuse to delegate and have limited faith in the ability of the team create time management problems for:

Themselves
The team
The sponsor
The client

Question 5
Which conflict, if it occurs, can have the most serious impact on the team’s performance

Schedules
Cost
Personality clashes
Resource availability

Question 6
Which of the following conflict resolution modes would a project least likely accept if the conflict was with the project team?

Confrontation
Compromise
Forcing
Smoothing

Question 7
Which of the following conflict resolution modes would a project manager prefer to use for a conflict with superiors?

Confrontation
Compromise
Forcing
Smoothing

Question 8
When using the SMART Rule, “R” stands for:

Realistic
Routine
Right
Retentive

Question 9
Emphasizing areas of agreement and deemphasizing areas of non-agreement represents which type of conflict resolution mode?

Confrontation
Compromise
Forcing
Smoothing

Question 10
Which of the following conflicts has the most frequent occurrence for a project manager?

Manpower
Costs
Time
Tradeoffs

Question 11
Which of the following is a characteristic of a good objective?

General, not specific
Overly complex
Established within resource bounds
Can violate organizational policies and procedures

Question 12
Lowering the bid price of a project, possibly below your own cost of doing the work, is called a _____.

Buy-in
Over-optimistic response
Unrealistic proposal
Unrealistic cost estimate

Question 13
Which of the following is not what most companies do with a best practice?

Share it internally only
Share it internally but only to a selected few
Advertize it to your customers
Create a best practices library on the internet for all to see

Question 14
The hardest part in creating a best practices library is:

Evaluation
Classification
Storage
Knowledge transfer

Question 15
Which of the following is not one of the four major variables for project management effectiveness?

Credibility
Communications
Priority
Visibility

Question 16
Which of the following would be the first item to be discussed in the initial kickoff meeting for a project?

Understanding of the requirements
Understanding of the plan
Understanding of the schedule
Understanding of the budget

Question 17
The person with the ultimate responsibility to make sure that all work required by the SOW and only the work required by the SOW is performed is the:

Customer
Project manager
Appropriate subject matter expert for that work package
Project sponsor

Question 18
Which of the following is normally not addressed in a change control board meeting to approve a scope change?

Cost of the change
Which functional unit will perform the change
Impact on the schedule
Value-added opportunity for the client

Question 19
Generally speaking, the lowest level in the WBS is referred to as:

Level 3
Level 4
Level 5
The work package

Question 20
During the execution of a project, the customer asks you to perform additional tests which the customer will pay for. Unfortunately, there are no resources available to perform the additional tests. The project manager should:

Refuse to perform the tests.
Determine when the tests can be done and then inform the customer
Tell the customer that company policy is that the additional tests must be treated as an enhancement project and funded separately after this project is over.
Let the sponsor make the decision on what to do.

Question 21
If the customer’s SOW contains words such as nearly or approximately, then:

The project manager uses his discretion in determining the meaning
The sponsor uses his discretion in determining the meaning
The customer uses his discretion in determining the meaning
Scope creep is unlikely

Question 22
A customer external to your company requests that a certain element of work be subdivided to lower level work packages and that cost/schedule information be reported at the lower levels. You should:

Grant the customer’s request but bill the customer for the changes to the WBS.
Simply grant the customer’s request.
Deny the request since the WBS is finalized and cannot change.
Check with the line managers first to see if cost and schedule can be reported at this level.

Question 23
Which of the following documents is not defined in the text as one of the four critical documents for preliminary planning?

SOW
WBS
Specifications
Network Diagrams

Question 24
Project managers often rewrite the customer’s SOW into a document that the project team can easily understand. The document is called:

The redefined SOW
The scope statement
The deliverable statement
The finalized SOW statement

Question 25
A customer is unhappy with the performance thus far on a project. The customer states that, unless scope changes are made at the contractor’s expense, the contractor would be removed from the customer’s preferred bidders list for future contracts. The contractor should.

Refuse to perform the scope changes.
Perform the scope changes at the contractor’s expense.
Perform the scope changes and then submit an invoice for payment to the customer.
Take no action and hope that the customer will forget about the scope change request.

Here’s the SOLUTION

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STRAYER BUS 520 FINAL EXAM (A+ Guaranteed)

STRAYER BUS 520 FINAL EXAM

Question 1

A potential advantage of electronic communication is __________.

people are interacting with machines so interactions are often impersonal
allowing broader and more immediate access to information
nonverbal communications is removed from interactions
recipients are typically accurate is identifying the tone or intent of email
people are interacting less with each other directly

Question 2
__________ cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.

High and low-continuity
Low-content
High-content
Low-context
High-context

Question 3
In comparing two-way communication with one-way communication, research indicates that __________.

two-way communication is more accurate
one-way communication is more accurate
both types of communication are the same in terms of accuracy
two-way communication is more accurate in large firms, and one-way communication is more accurate in small firms
two-way communication is more accurate in small firms, and one-way communication is more accurate in large firms

Question 4
Software that allows users to view others’ real-time availability and readiness to communicate is known as __________.

the 24/7 environment
presence-aware tools
electronic eavesdropping
privacy tools
flaming

Question 5
Grapevines have the advantage of __________.

always including the leaders of the organization
separating “those with information” from “those who shouldn’t have information”
sharing information that is always correct
ensuring that everyone who needs to hear the information gets the information
being able to transmit information quickly and efficiently

Question 6
“Creative stalling” is an avoidance strategy in the politics of self-protection wherein the manager or employee __________.

treats customers, clients, or subordinates as numbers, things or objects
accepts blame for the negative consequences of his/her actions
pretends to not be aware of the rules, policies, or procedures or of events that have occurred
adheres strictly to all the rules, policies, and procedures, and does not allow deviations or exceptions
spends time delaying implementation of undesirable changes

Question 7
Political __________ links managers more formally to one another as representatives of their work units.

savvy
movement
eventfulness
response
action

Question 8
A __________ is the range of authoritative requests to which a subordinate is willing to respond without subjecting the directives to critical evaluation or judgment.

territory of unconcern
region of inattention
region of insensibility
section of apathy
zone of indifference

Question 9
Which one of the following strategies for exercising relational influence can be defined as “using a direct and forceful personal approach?”

Assertiveness
Reason
Coalition
Sanctions
Higher authority

Question 10
Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people __________.

learn from personal failures
obey the commands of an authority figure
are willing to use coercive power to gain influence
are motivated by financial rewards
are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert power

Question 11
Hersey and Blanchard argue that situational leadership requires adjusting the leader’s emphasis on task behaviors and relationship behaviors according to the __________.

readiness of followers to perform their tasks
readiness of leaders to empower their followers
willingness of leaders to interact with their followers
willingness of followers to embrace a broad zone of indifference
leader’s position power

Question 12
The role of __________ is to promote adaptive or useful change.

directing
management
leadership
administration
supervision

Question 13
Leader traits and behaviors can act in conjunction with __________ to predict leader or organizational outcomes.

industry experience
educational background
leadership experience
age
situational contingencies

Question 14
Leadership studies conducted at Ohio State University derived which two basic forms of leader behavior?

Consideration and initiating structure
Implicit and explicit
Proactive and reactive
Employee centered and production centered
In-groups and out-groups

Question 15
According to __________ approaches, individual behavior is constructed in context, as people act and interact in situations.

supportive leadership
social construction
situational leadership
trait perspectives
leader match training

Question 16
“Know thyself” is the essential argument of __________ leadership.

ethical
authentic
servant
spiritual
transformational

Question 17
__________ represent(s) forces for change that deal with adapting the organization’s culture and structure as it grows toward maturity.

Organization-environment relationships
The organizational life cycle
The political nature of organizations
The technological nature of organizations
The structural nature of organizations

Question 18
Another name for incremental change is __________.

subtle change
original change
frame-bending change
basic change
temporal change

Question 19
__________ is often viewed as something that must be overcome in order for change to be successful.

Political maneuvering
Power sharing
Forced coercion
Resistance to change
Rational persuasion

Question 20
__________ represent(s) forces for change that deal with mergers, strategic alliances, and divestitures as ways of redefining organizational relationships with challenging social and political environments.

Organization-environment relationships
The organizational life cycle
The political nature of organizations
The technological nature of organizations
The structural nature of organizations

Question 21
A firm’s __________ is the system of shared actions, values, and beliefs that develops within the organization and guides the behavior of its members.

organizational structure
control philosophy
organizational persona
organizational climate
organizational culture

Question 22
Which step in the innovation process focuses on creating an idea through spontaneous creativity, ingenuity, and information processing?

Idea creation
Initial experimentation
Test and retest
Feasibility determination
Final application

Question 23
Resolving the issues of __________ helps individuals develop a shared identity and a collective commitment.

shared meanings
internal integration
external adaptation
cultural diversity
management philosophy

Question 24
Organizational __________ are unproven and often unstated beliefs that are accepted uncritically.

rites
routines
sagas
myths
rituals

Question 25
__________ involves reaching goals and dealing with outsiders.

Institutional adaptation
Internal integration
External adaptation
Systematic integration
Structural adaptation

Here’s the SOLUTION

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STRAYER BUS 430 QUIZ 1 (A+ Guaranteed)

STRAYER BUS 430 QUIZ 1

Question 1
Service organizations generally

are in close proximity to the customer
rely on physical inventory
take advantage of patents
can delegate human behavior and marketing skills

Question 2
Which one of the following has the highest goods content?

medicine prescription
computer repair
automobile loan
symphony performance

Question 3
The quality revolution is most related to

continuous improvement
mass production
time-based competition
service

Question 4
A golf simulator in a retail sports store is an example of

non- durable goods replacing services
primary good
goods content
biztainment

Question 5
Service management skills would include all of the following except

accounting and finance
knowledge and technical expertise about operations
marketing and cross-selling
human interaction

Question 6
The three issues that are at the core of operations management include all of the following except

cost
quality
utilization
efficiency

Question 7
Which of the following would be the lowest in goods content and highest in service content?

fast food restaurant
attending a theater production
getting an oil change for your car
filling a medical prescription

Question 8
Support processes would typically include all of the following except

inventory management
customer help desk operations
research and development
manufacturing and assembly

Question 9
A support process could be any of the following except

assembling automobiles
purchasing materials and supplies
managing inventory
installing a product

Question 10
Which of the following is not a key activity of an operations manager?

translating market knowledge into goods, services, and processes
continually learning and adapting to global and environmental changes
managing cash flows and strategic investments
exploiting technology to improve productivity

Question 11
A value creation process could be any of the following except

shipping a customer’s order
providing a home mortgage
assembling a dishwasher
purchasing production material
Moving to another question will save this response.

Question 12
Which of the following is not a current challenge to OM?

Globalization
Technology
Quality
mass production

Question 13
Which one of the following is not an example of biztainment?

iPhone applications
automobile leasing
product demonstrations
virtual factory tours

Question 14
Which of the following is the correct sequence describing the evolution of operations management?

efficiency, customization, quality, service, sustainability, time-based competition
quality, efficiency, time-based competition, sustainability, customization, service
efficiency, quality, customization, time-based competition, service, sustainability
quality, service, customization, time-based competition, efficiency, sustainability

Question 15
In relating operations management and the customer benefit package (CBP), which is the correct timing sequence?

Operating system processes lead to customer needs and expectations, which lead to customer benefit package.
Customer benefit package leads to customer needs and expectations, which lead to operating system processes.
Customer needs and expectations lead to customer benefit package, which leads to operating system processes.
Customer needs and expectations lead to operating system processes, which lead to customer benefit package.

Question 16
Which of the following generally does not result from vertical integration?

less control over cost
more control over quality
more complexity in managing
higher levels of risk

Question 17
When break-even analysis is applied to an outsourcing decision, the breakeven quantity is

the ratio of fixed costs to the difference between variable outsourcing cost and variable in-house production cost
the ratio of the difference between variable outsourcing cost and variable in-house production cost to fixed costs
the product of the variable costs times the fixed costs
the product of the variable costs times the production quantity

Question 18
The control of Wal-Mart’s value chain is ______, while the control of General Electric’s is ________.

post-production focused, preproduction focused
horizontal, vertical
centralized, decentralized
backward integrated, forward integrated

Question 19
From the pre- and post-service view of a value chain, goods and services design, contract negotiation and consulting services would be considered

pre-production services
production processes
post-production services
value creation

Question 20
Outsourcing is

the same as offshoring
the opposite of vertical integration
the opposite of backward integration
the same as diversifying

Question 21
Operational structure of the value chain deals with

management hierarchy
vertical integration
configuration of resources
culture

Question 22
Computer software would be an example of

an intangible good
a nondurable good
a service
a value creation process

Question 23
Which of the following is not normally considered a variable cost?

labor
transportation
equipment lease
material

Question 24
For a restaurant, order-taking, bill payment and home delivery would be considered

services
inputs
processes
outputs

Question 25
The first, second, and third waves of outsourcing experienced by the U.S. are

goods-producing jobs, simple service work, skilled knowledge work
simple service work, goods-producing jobs, skilled knowledge work
simple service work, skilled knowledge work, goods-producing jobs
skilled knowledge work, simple service work, goods-producing jobs

Question 26
“The perception of the benefits associated with a good, service, or bundle of goods and services in relation to what buyers are willing to pay for them” is the definition of

proportionality
competitiveness
value
equity

Question 27
____ is the process of managing information, services and physical goods to insure their availability at the right place, at the right time, at the right cost and at the right quantity, with the highest attention given to quality.

Preproduction service
Value proposition
Operational structure
Value chain integration

Question 28
In the value chain model for a hospital, patients, drugs and staff would be considered

suppliers
inputs
processes
outputs

Question 29
A company has two alternatives for meeting a customer requirement for 9,000 units of a specialty molding. If done in-house, fixed cost would be $350,000, with variable cost at $30 per unit. If outsourced, the cost is $80 per unit. Determine the breakeven point and determine if they should make the item in-house or outsource it.

breakeven point = 7,000 units; outsource
breakeven point = 7,000 units; make in-house
breakeven point = 11,667 units; outsource
breakeven point = 11,667 units; make in-house

Question 30
The United States has experienced three waves of outsourcing. Which of the following isnotone of the waves?

skilled knowledge work
mass customization
simple service work
goods-producing jobs

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