PHI 103 Week 3 Assignment; The Impact of Stereotyping Groups

PHI 103 Week 3 Assignment; The Impact of Stereotyping Groups

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PHI 103 Week 2 Quiz

PHI 103 Week 2 Quiz

1. Question : “10 is less than 100; 100 is less than 1,000; consequently, 10 is less than 1,000″ is an example of a

2. Question : One way to make an inductive argument stronger is to

3. Question : All sound arguments are valid, but not all valid arguments are sound. This means

4. Question : Inductive arguments should never be characterized as

5. Question : Inductive arguments are evaluated in terms of

6. Question : A valid argument is one that, if its premises are accepted as true, has

7. Question : A “good” deductive argument must at least be

8. Question : Assume you are given a sound argument. What do you know about it?

9. Question : One way to make an inductive argument stronger is to

10. Question : In logic, arguments are never described as

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PHI 103 Week 2 Discussion Question 2

PHI 103 Week 2 Discussion Question 2

Construct an inductive argument for a specific conclusion. Then, explain what you might do to make this inductive argument stronger, either by revising the premises or by revising the conclusion.

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PHI 103 Week 2 Discussion Question 1

PHI 103 Week 2 Discussion Question 1

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PHI 103 Week 2 Assignment; Pro-Choice

PHI 103 Week 2 Assignment; Pro-Choice

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PHI 103 Week 1 Quiz

PHI 103 Week 1 Quiz

1. Question : Which of these could be seen as a premise in an argument?

2. Question : A valid deductive argument, the premises of which are accepted as true, shows

3. Question : “You didn’t like that book; so you probably don’t like to read” is

4. Question : In the statement, “You didn’t like that restaurant; so you probably don’t like to eat out,” “you probably don’t like to out” is the

5. Question : If a reason that is not relevant to the conclusion is given,

6. Question : Which of the following is most likely to be a conclusion?

7. Question : Premises and conclusions have which of the following in common?

8. Question : A five year old boy who refuses to listen to reasons for going to bed could be called

9. Question : Reasons given to support a conclusion are called

10. Question : An argument can have

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PHI 103 Week 1 Discussions Question 2

PHI 103 Week 1 Discussions Question 2

Logic can do a great deal in helping us understand our arguments. Explain what advantages we obtain by studying logic in terms of improving our reasoning. Consider a debate over whether prayer should be allowed in public schools. Explain what logic can and cannot do. In other words, what kinds of questions and topics are not decided by logical analysis?

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PHI 103 Week 1 Discussions Question 1

PHI 103 Week 1 Discussions Question 1

Consider an argument you have recently had with a friend, family member, manager, co-worker, or someone else. Identify the topic of the argument and present that argument in premise-conclusion form, identifying both the premises and conclusion.

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HRM 522 Week 5 Midterm Exam (A+ Guaranteed)

Question 1
Principles are

laws and regulations that guide behavior in the world of business.
mores, values, and customs that guide behavior in general.
specific and pervasive boundaries for behavior that are universal and absolute.
the obligations businesses assume to maximize their positive impact and minimize their negative impact on stakeholders.
the mores, values, and customs that parents teach their children.

Question 2
Ethics is a part of decision making

at all levels of work and management.
primarily at the upper management levels of an organization.
mostly for policy makers.
that is less important than other decision making processes.
only at that lower levels of organizational management

Question 3
Which of the following is not something a firm might do to encourage organizational ethics and compliance?

Employee ethics training
Hiring a compliance officer
Ignoring potential ethical issues
Writing a code of ethics
Conducting an ethics and compliance audit

Question 4
During the 1990s the institutionalization of business ethics was largely driven by which piece of legislation?

Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act
Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
Global Sullivan Principles

Question 5
Having acceptable personal ethics is probably not going to be sufficient to handle complex business ethical issues when an individual has

family concerns.
an unethical boss.
limited business experience.
financial training.
a marketing background

Question 6
Which of the following is generally not considered a business ethics issue?

Harassment
Accounting fraud
Employee theft
Misuse of organizational resources
Corporate hierarchy

Question 7
Social responsibility is

an organization’s obligation to maximize its positive effects and minimize its negative effects on stakeholders.
principles and standards that guide behavior in the world of business.
a business’s responsibility not to pollute the environment.
a business’s responsibility to manufacture products that function properly.
charitable contributions made by a business to enhance its image

Question 8
Investors are concerned about business ethics because they know that misconduct can

foster stability.
improve employee commitment.
improve customer loyalty.
lower stock value and prices.
complicate business financial reporting

Question 9
Which of the following industries tends to generate a high level of trust from consumers and stakeholders?

Insurance
Technology
Banks
Mortgage lenders
Financial services

Question 10
Stakeholders’ power over businesses stems from their

ability to withdraw or withhold resources.
ability to generate profits.
media impact.
political influence.
stock ownership

Question 11
Why do critics argue that high compensation for boards of directors is a bad thing?

It is too expensive for the organization.
It could cause conflicts of interest between the directors and the organization.
It is not fair to poorly compensated employees.
High pay will render the board less complacent.
Board of director compensation is not a major issue

Question 12
Which of the following is not a method typically employed by firms when researching relevant stakeholder groups?

Surveys
Focus groups
Internet searches
Press reviews
Guessing

Question 13
The degree to which a firm understands and addresses stakeholder demands can be referred to as

a stakeholder orientation.
a shareholder orientation.
the stakeholder interaction model. d. a two-way street.
e. a continuum.

Question 14
One policy to address the issue of executive pay was implemented by J.P. Morgan, it stated that _______.

there should be no limit on what top executives can earn.
managers should earn no more than twenty times the pay of other employees.
top managers should make the same amount as other employees.
employees can determine how much managers make.
the government should determine the worth of each manager’s service

Question 15
Public health and safety and support of local organizations are issues most relevant to which stakeholder group?

Investors
Community
Suppliers
Customers
Employees

Question 16
The originator of the idea of the invisible hand, which is a fundamental concept in free market capitalism, was

Adam Smith.
Theodore Levitt.
Norman Bowie.
Herman Miller
Milton Friedman

Question 17
________ is defined as any purposeful communication that deceives, manipulates, or conceals facts in order to create a false impression.

Stealing
Lying
Fraud
Misappropriation
Accounting fraud

Question 18
Among retail stores, ________ is a larger problem than customer shoplifting.

poor stock performance
weak leadership
internal employee theft
misuse of merchandise
employee dissatisfaction

Question 19
________ are used to obtain or retain business and are not generally considered illegal in the U.S.

Facilitation payments
Bribes
Gifts
Coercive techniques
Threats

Question 20
What type of fraudulent activity could involve a consumer staging an accident to seek damages?

Whacking
Duplicity
Guile
Defamation
Collusion

Question 21
Abusive or intimidating behavior is the most common ethical problem for employees. Which of the following is not related to this concept?

Physical threats
False accusations
Being annoying
Profanity
Performance probation

Question 22
Which of the following is not a consequence of ethical misconduct?

Decreased reputation
Shaken customer loyalty
Reduced investor confidence
Increased sales
Legal actions by wronged parties

Question 23
Optimization is defined as

the quality of being just, equitable, and impartial.
a trade-off between equity and efficiency.
an interchange of giving and receiving in social relationships.
how wealth or income is distributed between employees within a company.
a lack of integrity, incomplete disclosure, and an unwillingness to tell the truth

Question 24
Which of the following is not a side-effect of being the victim of workplace bullying?

Increased productivity
Sleep disturbance
Depression
Increased sick days
Stomach problems

Question 25
Concerns involving copyright infringement on books, movies and music, and other illegally produced goods relate to which type of ethical issue?

Conflict of interest
Honesty
Communications
Discrimination
Intellectual property rights

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FIN 534 Midterm Exam – At the end of 10 years, which of the following investments

1. At the end of 10 years, which of the following investments would have the highest future value? Assume that the effective annual rate for all investments is the same and is greater than zero.

Investment A pays $250 at the beginning of every year for the next 10 years (a total of 10 payments).
Investment B pays $125 at the end of every 6-month period for the next 10 years (a total of 20 payments).
Investment C pays $125 at the beginning of every 6-month period for the next 10 years (a total of 20 payments).
Investment D pays $2,500 at the end of 10 years (just one payment).
Investment E pays $250 at the end of every year for the next 10 years (a total of 10 payments).

2. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

An investment that has a nominal rate of 6% with semiannual payments will have an effective rate that is smaller than 6%.
The present value of a 3-year, $150 ordinary annuity will exceed the present value of a 3-year, $150 annuity due.
If a loan has a nominal annual rate of 7%, then the effective rate will never be less than 7%.
If a loan or investment has annual payments, then the effective, periodic, and nominal rates of interest will all be different.
The proportion of the payment that goes toward interest on a fully amortized loan increases over time.

3. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

If some cash flows occur at the beginning of the periods while others occur at the ends, then we have what the textbook defines as a variable annuity.
The cash flows for an ordinary (or deferred) annuity all occur at the beginning of the periods.
If a series of unequal cash flows occurs at regular intervals, such as once a year, then the series is by definition an annuity.
The cash flows for an annuity due must all occur at the ends of the periods.
The cash flows for an annuity must all be equal, and they must occur at regular intervals, such as once a year or once a month.

4. Which of the following statements regarding a 30-year monthly payment amortized mortgage with a nominal interest rate of 8% is CORRECT?

Exactly 8% of the first monthly payment represents interest.
The monthly payments will decline over time.
A smaller proportion of the last monthly payment will be interest, and a larger proportion will be principal, than for the first monthly payment.
The total dollar amount of principal being paid off each month gets smaller as the loan approaches maturity.
The amount representing interest in the first payment would be higher if the nominal interest rate were 6% rather than 8%.

5. A U.S. Treasury bond will pay a lump sum of $1,000 exactly 3 years from today. The nominal interest rate is 6%, semiannual compounding. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

The PV of the $1,000 lump sum has a smaller present value than the PV of a 3-year, $333.33 ordinary annuity.
The periodic interest rate is greater than 3%.
The periodic rate is less than 3%.
The present value would be greater if the lump sum were discounted back for more periods.
The present value of the $1,000 would be larger if interest were compounded monthly rather than semiannually.

6. You are considering two equally risky annuities, each of which pays $25,000 per year for 10 years. Investment ORD is an ordinary (or deferred) annuity, while Investment DUE is an annuity due. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

If the going rate of interest decreases from 10% to 0%, the difference between the present value of ORD and the present value of DUE would remain constant.
A rational investor would be willing to pay more for DUE than for ORD, so their market prices should differ.
The present value of DUE exceeds the present value of ORD, while the future value of DUE is less than the future value of ORD.
The present value of ORD exceeds the present value of DUE, and the future value of ORD also exceeds the future value of DUE.
The present value of ORD exceeds the present value of DUE, while the future value of DUE exceeds the future value of ORD.

7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Most sinking funds require the issuer to provide funds to a trustee, who saves the money so that it will be available to pay off bondholders when the bonds mature.
A sinking fund provision makes a bond more risky to investors at the time of issuance.
Sinking fund provisions never require companies to retire their debt; they only establish “targets” for the company to reduce its debt over time.
If interest rates have increased since a company issued bonds with a sinking fund, the company is less likely to retire the bonds by buying them back in the open market, as opposed to calling them in at the sinking fund call price.
Sinking fund provisions sometimes turn out to adversely affect bondholders, and this is most likely to occur if interest rates decline after the bond has been issued.

8. Assume that interest rates on 15-year noncallable Treasury and corporate bonds with different ratings are as follows:
T-bond = 7.72% A = 9.64%
AAA = 8.72% BBB = 10.18%
The differences in rates among these issues were most probably caused primarily by:

Tax effects.
Default risk differences.
Maturity risk differences.
Inflation differences.
Real risk-free rate differences.

9. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

All else equal, long-term bonds have less interest rate price risk than short-term bonds.
All else equal, low-coupon bonds have less interest rate price risk than high-coupon bonds.
All else equal, short-term bonds have less reinvestment rate risk than long-term bonds.
All else equal, long-term bonds have less reinvestment rate risk than short-term bonds.
All else equal, high-coupon bonds have less reinvestment rate risk than low-coupon bonds.

10. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Long-term bonds have less interest rate price risk but more reinvestment rate risk than short-term bonds.
If interest rates increase, all bond prices will increase, but the increase will be greater for bonds that have less interest rate risk.
Relative to a coupon-bearing bond with the same maturity, a zero coupon bond has more interest rate price risk but less reinvestment rate risk.
Long-term bonds have less interest rate price risk and also less reinvestment rate risk than short-term bonds.
One advantage of a zero coupon Treasury bond is that no one who owns the bond has to pay any taxes on it until it matures or is sold.

11. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

If a 10-year, $1,000 par, 10% coupon bond were issued at par, and if interest rates then dropped to the point where rd = YTM = 5%, we could be sure that the bond would sell at a premium above its $1,000 par value.
Other things held constant, a corporation would rather issue noncallable bonds than callable bonds.
Other things held constant, a callable bond would have a lower required rate of return than a noncallable bond.
Reinvestment rate risk is worse from an investor’s standpoint than interest rate price risk if the investor has a short investment time horizon.
If a 10-year, $1,000 par, zero coupon bond were issued at a price that gave investors a 10% yield to maturity, and if interest rates then dropped to the point where rd = YTM = 5%, the bond would sell at a premium over its $1,000 par value.

12. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

The total yield on a bond is derived from dividends plus changes in the price of the bond.
Bonds are riskier than common stocks and therefore have higher required returns.
Bonds issued by larger companies always have lower yields to maturity (less risk) than bonds issued by smaller companies.
The market value of a bond will always approach its par value as its maturity date approaches, provided the bond’s required return remains constant.
If the Federal Reserve unexpectedly announces that it expects inflation to increase, then we would probably observe an immediate increase in bond prices.

13. Bonds A and B are 15-year, $1,000 face value bonds. Bond A has a 7% annual coupon, while Bond B has a 9% annual coupon. Both bonds have a yield to maturity of 8%, which is expected to remain constant for the next 15 years. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

One year from now, Bond A’s price will be higher than it is today.
Bond A’s current yield is greater than 8%.
Bond A has a higher price than Bond B today, but one year from now the bonds will have the same price.
Both bonds have the same price today, and the price of each bond is expected to remain constant until the bonds mature.
Bond B has a higher price than Bond A today, but one year from now the bonds will have the same price.

14. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

If the risk-free rate rises, then the market risk premium must also rise.
If a company’s beta is halved, then its required return will also be halved.
If a company’s beta doubles, then its required return will also double.
The slope of the security market line is equal to the market risk premium, (rM rRF)
Beta is measured by the slope of the security market line.

15. Recession, inflation, and high interest rates are economic events that are best characterized as being

company-specific risk factors that can be diversified away.
among the factors that are responsible for market risk.
risks that are beyond the control of investors and thus should not be considered by security analysts or portfolio managers.
irrelevant except to governmental authorities like the Federal Reserve.
systematic risk factors that can be diversified away.

16. Assume that the risk-free rate is 5%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

If a stock’s beta doubled, its required return under the CAPM would also double.
If a stock’s beta doubled, its required return under the CAPM would more than double.
If a stock’s beta were 1.0, its required return under the CAPM would be 5%.
If a stock’s beta were less than 1.0, its required return under the CAPM would be less than 5%.
If a stock has a negative beta, its required return under the CAPM would be less than 5%.

17. Which of the following is most likely to occur as you add randomly selected stocks to your portfolio, which currently consists of 3 average stocks?

The expected return of your portfolio is likely to decline.
The diversifiable risk will remain the same, but the market risk will likely decline.
Both the diversifiable risk and the market risk of your portfolio are likely to decline.
The total risk of your portfolio should decline, and as a result, the expected rate of return on the portfolio should also decline.
The diversifiable risk of your portfolio will likely decline, but the expected market risk should not change.

18. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Suppose the returns on two stocks are negatively correlated. One has a beta of 1.2 as determined in a regression analysis using data for the last 5 years, while the other has a beta of -0.6. The returns on the stock with the negative beta must have been negatively correlated with returns on most other stocks during that 5-year period.
Suppose you are managing a stock portfolio, and you have information that leads you to believe the stock market is likely to be very strong in the immediate future. That is, you are convinced that the market is about to rise sharply. You should sell your high-beta stocks and buy low-beta stocks in order to take advantage of the expected market move.
You think that investor sentiment is about to change, and investors are about to become more risk averse. This suggests that you should re-balance your portfolio to include more high-beta stocks.
If the market risk premium remains constant, but the risk-free rate declines, then the required returns on low-beta stocks will rise while those on high-beta stocks will decline.
Paid-in-Full Inc. is in the business of collecting past-due accounts for other companies, i.e., it is a collection agency. Paid-in-Full’s revenues, profits, and stock price tend to rise during recessions. This suggests that Paid-in-Full Inc.’s beta should be quite high, say 2.0, because it does so much better than most other companies when the economy is weak.

19. Stock A’s beta is 1.7 and Stock B’s beta is 0.7. Which of the following statements must be true, assuming the CAPM is correct.

In equilibrium, the expected return on Stock B will be greater than that on Stock A.
When held in isolation, Stock A has more risk than Stock B.
Stock B would be a more desirable addition to a portfolio than A.
In equilibrium, the expected return on Stock A will be greater than that on B.
Stock A would be a more desirable addition to a portfolio then Stock B.

20. Two constant growth stocks are in equilibrium, have the same price, and have the same required rate of return. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

If one stock has a higher dividend yield, it must also have a lower dividend growth rate.
If one stock has a higher dividend yield, it must also have a higher dividend growth rate.
The two stocks must have the same dividend growth rate.
The two stocks must have the same dividend yield.
The two stocks must have the same dividend per share.

21. Merrell Enterprises’ stock has an expected return of 14%. The stock’s dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 8%, and it currently sells for $50 a share. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

The stock’s dividend yield is 8%.
The current dividend per share is $4.00.
The stock price is expected to be $54 a share one year from now.
The stock price is expected to be $57 a share one year from now.
The stock’s dividend yield is 7%.

22. Franklin Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $1.25 per share at the end of the year (D1 = $1.25). The stock sells for $32.50 per share, and its required rate of return is 10.5%. The dividend is expected to grow at some constant rate, g, forever. What is the equilibrium expected growth rate?

6.01%
6.17%
6.33%
6.49%
6.65%

23. You, in analyzing a stock, find that its expected return exceeds its required return. This suggests that you think

the stock should be sold.
the stock is a good buy.
management is probably not trying to maximize the price per share.
dividends are not likely to be declared.
the stock is experiencing supernormal growth.

24. Stocks A and B have the following data. Assuming the stock market is efficient and the stocks are in equilibrium, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A B
Price $25 $25
Expected growth (constant) 10% 5%
Required return 15% 15%

Stock A has a higher dividend yield than Stock B.
Currently the two stocks have the same price, but over time Stock B’s price will pass that of A.
Since Stock A’s growth rate is twice that of Stock B, Stock A’s future dividends will always be twice as high as Stock B’s.
The two stocks should not sell at the same price. If their prices are equal, then a disequilibrium must exist.
Stock A’s expected dividend at t = 1 is only half that of Stock B.

25. Stocks A and B have the same price and are in equilibrium, but Stock A has the higher required rate of return. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Stock B must have a higher dividend yield than Stock A.
Stock A must have a higher dividend yield than Stock B.
If Stock A has a higher dividend yield than Stock B, its expected capital gains yield must be lower than Stock B’s.
Stock A must have both a higher dividend yield and a higher capital gains yield than Stock B.
If Stock A has a lower dividend yield than Stock B, its expected capital gains yield must be higher than Stock B’s.

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